SEO
vBulletin Search Engine Optimization
| |||||||
| Register | FAQ | Members List | Calendar | Search | Today's Posts | Mark Forums Read |
02-29-2008, 06:32 AM
| ||||
| ||||
 why does a user function require dbo.* and a stored proc does not? I have many stored procs in my database and I can call them just by their name uspMyProc with success always. However, I just created a user function ufnMyFunction as the same user that I created my procs but when I call ufnMyFunction it fails unless I preface it with dbo. . How come the stored proc does not require this but the stored function does? TFD      |
|
02-29-2008, 06:32 AM
| ||||
| ||||
| Re: why does a user function require dbo.* and a stored proc does not? LineVoltageHalogen (tropicalfruitdrops@yahoo.com) writes: > I have many stored procs in my database and I can call them just by > their name uspMyProc with success always. However, I just created a > user function ufnMyFunction as the same user that I created my procs > but when I call ufnMyFunction it fails unless I preface it with dbo. . > How come the stored proc does not require this but the stored function > does? The reason that you must specify schema(*) when you invoke a UDF is mainly a syntactical one. If you could say just "SELECT MyUDF(a) FROM tbl", and Microsoft in next version would introduce a new system function with that name, they would have broken your code. To avoid this, Microsoft needed to find a syntactic way to distinguish between a user-defined function and a system function. They opted to require schema to be mandatory. (*) or owner. In SQL 2000 schema = owner. Not so in SQL 2005! -- Erland Sommarskog, SQL Server MVP, esquel@sommarskog.se Books Online for SQL Server SP3 at http://www.microsoft.com/sql/techinf...2000/books.asp |
Linear Mode
